1.
Theophylline exerts its therapeutic effect by
I. Blocking phosphodiesterase, which ultimately causes release of epinephrine from adrenal medulla
II. Inhibiting degranulation of mast cells
III. Stimulating beta2 receptors, which causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and II
D.
I and III
E.
I, II, and III


2.
Products with zero-order absorption kinetics are better than products with first-order absorption kinetics because
I. Are more readily absorbed
II. Result in a longer half-life of the product
III. Offer steady plasma drug concentrations
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


3.
Which statements about asthma are true?
I. Is considered a hyperactivity of the airways resulting from physical, chemical, and pharmacologic stimuli
II. Chronic asthma is characterized by episodic dyspnea associated with wheezing
III. Emergency situations for acute severe asthma often represent the failure of an adequate therapeutic regimen for chronic asthma
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and II
D.
I and III
E.
I, II, and III


4.
Which pharmacologic mechanisms represent that of bromocriptine?
I. Has dopaminergic activity
II. Inhibits prolactin secretion
III. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


5.
Proton pump inhibitors that are available OTC include
A.
Lansoprazole
B.
Esomeprazole
C.
Omeprazole
D.
Pantoprazole
E.
All of the above


6.
Which of the following agents work by inhibiting calcium ions from entering slow channels or select voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during depolarization?
I. Dilacor XR®
II. Inderal®
III. Teveten®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and II
D.
I and III
E.
I, II, and III


7.
Hypoglycemic agents available in extended-release dosage forms include
I. Metformin®
II. Glipizide
III. Acarbose
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


8.
The Cockcroft and Gault equation is used to determine
I. Glomerular filtration rate
II. Serum creatinine
III. Creatinine clearance
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


9.
Classic symptoms of diabetes include
I. Polyuria
II. Polyphagia
III. Polydipsia
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


10.
Drugs that can be used to treat constipation include
I. ReglanTM
II. Cascara sagrada
III. Surfak
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
II and III
E.
I, II and III


11.
Antihistamines that are less likely to cause drowsiness include
I. Claritin®
II. Periactin®
III. Allegra®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I and III


12.
Drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease that are also ergot alkaloid derivatives include
A.
ReglanTM
B.
Imitrex®
C.
Parlodel®
D.
Amerge®
E.
Zomig®


13.
Agents that decrease cholesterol include
I. Lescol®
II. Colestid®
III. Cordarone®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


14.
Monitoring parameters for atropine sulfate in the treatment of sinus bradycardia include
I. Heart rate
II. Blood pressure
III. Liver function
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


15.
What types of drugs are normally used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
I. Sympathomimetics
II. Adrenergic agonists
III. Calcium channel blockers
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


16.
Which drug selectively forms a protective coating that protects the gastric lining against peptic acid, pepsin, and bile salts, when it forms a viscous paste-like adhesive substance after it binds to positively charged proteins?
A.
Pepcid®
B.
Prilosec®
C.
Carafate®
D.
Pepto-Bismol®
E.
Milk of magnesia


17.
Drugs that can be used in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis as well as prophylactically include
I. Indomethacin
II. Deltasone®
III. Colchicine
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


18.
Which of the following is true about topical decongestants?
I. Topical decongestants act by inhibiting adrenergic receptors
II. They result in little or no systemic absorption
III. Prolonged use of topical decongestants result in severe nasal edema and reduced receptor sensitivity (rhinitis medicamentosa)
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


19.
Since calcium carbonate is 40% elemental calcium, the number of tablets you would need to use to supply 1 g of elemental calcium, if the tablet size is 650 mg, would be
A.
1 tablet
B.
2 tablets
C.
3 tablets
D.
4 tablets
E.
6 tablets


20.
Which of the following statements are true about Miacalcin® in the treatment of osteoporosis?
I. It eliminates the need for supplementation with calcium and vitamin D
II. Its effects on bone density may plateau or decrease after 12–18 months
III. Nasal administration produces fewer side effects than subcutaneous
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


21.
Drugs that are effective in the symptom relief of rheumatoid arthritis but do not slow disease progression include
I. Naprelan®
II. Aspirin
III. Sandimmune®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


22.
Calcium formulations that have acid independent absorption and, thus, are preferable for use in the elderly as supplement to decrease bone loss include
I. Calcium carbonate
II. Calcium citrate
III. Calcium chloride
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


23.
Dosage forms available for Sandostatin® include
I. Injection
II. Capsules
III. Tablets
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


24.
Pyridium is used in patients with urinary tract infections because of its
I. Antibiotic activity
II. Analgesic effects
III. Anesthetic effects
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II, and III


25.
Which statements about hepatitis C are true?
I. It is clinically indistinguishable from other types of hepatitis
II. Less than 25% of the patients develop jaundice
III. Approximately 60–70% progress to chronic infection
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and II
D.
II and III
E.
I, II, and III


26.
Which of the following drugs is an immunosuppressant agent?
A.
Roferon-A®
B.
Prograf®
C.
Imitrex®
D.
Evista®
E.
Soma®


27.
Which medication treats gastroesophageal reflux by enhancing the response to acetylcholine of tissue in upper GI tract causing enhanced motility and accelerated gastric emptying without stimulating gastric, biliary, or pancreatic secretions?
A.
Prilosec®
B.
Pepcid®
C.
ReglanTM
D.
Carafate®
E.
Questran


28.
Mesna is an antidote used to treat hemorrhagic cystitis caused by which of the following drugs?
I. Ifex®
II. Cytoxan®
III. Adriamycin®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


29.
Which of the following products would you recommend to treat acne vulgaris?
I. Azelex®
II. Meclan®
III. LactiCare®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II and III


30.
Which of the following statements is true about gentamicin dosing?
I. All patients require a loading dose independent of renal function
II. Patients receiving hemodialysis should receive a lower loading dose
III. The loading dose should be the same regardless of the severity of the infection
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


31.
The first line of therapy that should be used in managing acute attacks in patients with chronic stable angina include
I. Nitrates
II. Diuretics
III. ACE inhibitors
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II, and III


32.
Which of the following drugs should not be given to patients stable in anticoagulant therapy?
I. Activase®
II. Zovirax®
III. Avandia®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


33.
Which of the following statements are true about heparin?
I. It has the ability to bind and catalyze antithrombin III
II. Halts further growth and propagation of the thrombus
III. It should be monitored by the INR
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


34.
Oral treatments available to treat acne include
I. Sumycin®
II. Cleocin®
III. Accutane®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


35.
What is that pharmacologic classification of AvitaTM?
I. Retinoic acid derivative
II. Acne product
III. Dopaminergic agent
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


36.
Which of the following agents are keratolytic drugs indicated for the treatment of psoriasis
I. Anthra-Derm
II. Podocon-25
III. Retin-A®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I and III


37.
Which of the following drugs will improve myocardial oxygen supply by dissolving the thrombus associated with acute myocardial infarction and improve the likelihood of survival if taking within 4 hours of a myocardial infarction onset?
I. Eminase®
II. Retavase®
III. Plavix®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


38.
All of the following are angiotensin receptor antagonists EXCEPT
A.
Atacand®
B.
Diovan®
C.
Monopril®
D.
Cozaar®
E.
Avapro®


39.
Which of the following agents can be administered using a transdermal drug delivery system?
I. Habitrol
II. Anthra-Derm
III. Clinda-Derm
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


40.
Drug types that can induce constipation include
I. Opiates
II. Iron preparations
III. Anticholinergics
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


41.
Recommendations that you could make to a patient experiencing acute diarrhea include
I. Stopping solid foods for 24 hours
II. Increase the intake of dairy products
III. Drink water
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I and III


42.
Which of the following agents are recombinant human erythropoietin products that promote differentiation and proliferation of blood products?
I. Procrit®
II. Proleukin®
III. Prograf®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


43.
What types of antidepressants are more likely to decrease the seizure threshold in a patient with a history of seizure disorder?
I. Cyclic antidepressants
II. MAO inhibitors
III. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


44.
Which of the following substances is classified as a strong electrolyte?
A.
KCl
B.
Glucose
C.
Creatinine
D.
Serum
E.
NaPO4


45.
Drugs that show high plasma protein binding usually show
A.
A very large apparent volume of distribution
B.
A very small apparent volume of distribution
C.
Higher incidence of side effects
D.
High urinary excretion
E.
Low hepatic metabolism


46.
What types of chemical compounds can undergo degradation through decarboxylation?
I. Carboxylic acids
II. Esters in liquid formulations
III. Electrolytes
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


47.
Which of the following drugs can minimize the number of reflux episodes in GERD by increasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure?
I. ReglanTM
II. Urecholine®
III. Prevacid®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


48.
Which of the following statements are true about hepatitis A?
I. The infection usually produces mild, self-limited illness, and rarely results in fulminant hepatitis or death
II. Clinical symptoms in children < 6 years old generally display a mild, influenza-like illness without clinical jaundice
III. Chronic hepatitis may develop over a period of years
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


49.
Products available for prevention of hepatitis include
I. Hepatitis B vaccine
II. Hepatitis B immune globulin
III. Roferon A®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


50.
Antitussives that can be found in OTC preparations include
I. Codeine
II. Dextromethorphan
III. Pseudoephedrine
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


51.
Which of the following is a hypertonic parenteral product?
I. 0.45% NaCl
II. 0.9% NaCl
III. Dextrose 40%
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


52.
Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include
I. Lyphocin
II. Augmentin®
III. Rocephin®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


53.
A patient that is being treated with an antibiotic therapy complains of ringing in his ears. This patient is most likely being treated with which of the following antibiotics?
A.
Rocephin®
B.
Omnicef®
C.
Cleocin®
D.
Lyphocin
E.
Ketoconazole


54.
A patient has just been diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Her physician has decided to prescribe Kayexalate®. The ion or ions present in this resin that allows for the binding of potassium ions, causing a decrease in potassium levels in the serum include
I. Sodium
II. Calcium
III. Magnesium
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


55.
The route of administration for Kayexalate® is
I. PO
II. IV
III. IM
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


56.
Which of the following agents is commonly used in patients with renal failure to treat hypophosphatemia?
I. Kayexalate®
II. Amphojel®
III. Calcium carbonate
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


57.
A filter syringe must always be used when drawing a dose from
I. Ampules
II. Glass vials with rubber stoppers
III. Plastic vials with rubber stoppers
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


58.
Normochromic normocytic anemia is usually seen in
I. Vitamin B12 deficiency
II. Chronic renal failure
III. Iron deficiency
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


59.
Major toxicities for gentamicin include
I. Cardiotoxicity
II. Ototoxicity
III. Nephrotoxicity
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


60.
What vitamin is generally recommended to prevent the peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazide administration in patients being treated for tuberculosis?
A.
Vitamin B12
B.
Vitamin A
C.
Vitamin B6
D.
Vitamin D
E.
Vitamin B1


61.
The volume of distribution of many drugs is generally increased in patients with
I. End-stage renal disease
II. Hepatic failure
III. Gallbladder disease
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


62.
Clinical characteristics of hypovolemia hyponatremia include
I. Tachycardia
II. Oliguria
III. Azotemia
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


63.
Hypervolemic hyponatremia in a patient is treated by
I. Restricting both water and salt
II. Loop diuretics
III. Normal saline administered IV
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


64.
Symptoms of hypernatremia include all of the following EXCEPT
A.
Spasticity
B.
Irritability
C.
Constipation
D.
Seizure
E.
Ataxia


65.
Agents that will reverse the ECG changes seen in severe hyperkalemia include?
I. Magnesium sulfate
II. Calcium chloride
III. Sodium phosphate
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


66.
Hypocalcemia associated with hypoalbuminemia requires
A.
No treatment
B.
Calcium chloride IV
C.
Calcium gluconate IV
D.
Normal saline IV
E.
Calcium phosphate IV


67.
Causes for hyperphosphatemia include
I. End-stage renal disease
II. Laxatives containing phosphate salts
III. Rhabdomyolysis
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


68.
Uremia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
A.
Nausea
B.
Vomiting
C.
Anorexia
D.
Polyuria
E.
Mental status changes


69.
Syrups consist of all of the following ingredients EXCEPT
A.
Drug
B.
Water
C.
Sugar
D.
Alcohol
E.
Colorants


70.
Two moles of a drug dissolved in one liter of solution should be labeled as
A.
2 M
B.
2 m
C.
2% W/V
D.
2% V/V
E.
2% W/W


71.
The Hendersen-Hasselbalch equation is defined as
I. pH = pKa + log [base] / [acid]
II. pKa = pH + log [base] / [acid]
III. log [base] / acid = pH + pKa
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


72.
The serum level of Tegretol® is affected by
I. Tricyclic antidepressants
II. Augmentin®
III. Coumadin®
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


73.
What type of interaction describes the drug-drug interaction seen between an antacid that contains calcium and tetracycline?
A.
Synergism
B.
Antagonism
C.
Complexation
D.
Additive
E.
Ionic


74.
If 25 mL of a cotrimoxazole suspension are used to provide an equivalent dose of BactrimTM DS, the concentration of the solution consist of
A.
6.4 mg trimethoprim and 32 mg of sulfamethoxazole
B.
12.8 mg trimethoprim and 64 mg of sulfamethoxazole
C.
32 mg trimethoprim and 6.4 mg of sulfamethoxazole
D.
32 mg trimethoprim and 32 mg of sulfamethoxazole
E.
6.4 mg trimethoprim and 6.4 mg of sulfamethoxazole


75.
The active ingredient found in Orudis® is the same one found in
A.
Tylenol®
B.
Motrin®
C.
Oruvail®
D.
Naproxen
E.
Advil®


76.
Which corticosteroid preparation is available in oral, topical, and injectable forms?
I. Beclomethasone
II. Hydrocortisone
III. Dexamethasone
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
II and III


77.
What is the ratio of the concentrations of the sodium acetate to acetic acid in a buffer solution of 7.4, if the pKa of the acetic acid is 4.8? Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: pKa = pH – log [base] / [salt]
A.
398 sodium acetate:1 acetic acid
B.
0.0025 sodium acetate:1 acetic acid
C.
200 sodium acetate:1 acetic acid
D.
1 sodium acetate:200 acetic acid
E.
1 sodium acetate: 398 acetic acid


78.
Conditions that are side effects of Risperdal® include
I. Extrapyramidal symptoms
II. Tardive dyskinesia
III. Weight loss
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I and III


79.
The designation ou in the sig for Timoptic® 0.5% means
A.
Each eye
B.
Right eye
C.
Left eye
D.
Affected eye
E.
None of the above


80.
The best resource for identifying a drug equivalent for a patient that has received treatment for his high blood pressure outside of the U.S. would be
A.
The Red Book
B.
Pharmacist's Letter
C.
Martindale's Extra Pharmacopia
D.
Physician's Desk Reference
E.
Facts and Comparisons


81.
Hemodialysis is useful in removing drugs from a person that has been overdosed if the drug
A.
Is polar
B.
Has a large apparent volume of distribution
C.
Does not bind to plasma protein
D.
Is water soluble
E.
Has a small volume of distribution


82.
If you wish to increase the solubility of a weak base drug in water you could
I. Decrease the pH of the medium
II. Decrease the effective surface area of the drug
III. Slow the diffusion of drug molecules into the solvent by increasing the viscosity of the solvent
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


83.
The bioavailability of a drug from an extended release dosage form is related to the
I. Half-life of the drug
II. Solubility of the drug
III. Size of the dosage form
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


84.
Which of the following statements are true about suppositories
I. The suppository base should be compatible with a variety of drugs
II. It should dissolve easily in the fluid of the body cavity into which it is inserted
III. It should melt below 30oC
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


85.
A patient has changed physicians and you receive a call from her new physician who wants to know the number of mEq of potassium chloride she is taking on her current daily dose of 4 tablets of 400 mg (mol wt is 74.5). You tell him that she is currently taking
A.
10 mEq
B.
21 mEq
C.
30 mEq
D.
35 mEq
E.
42 mEq


86.
Which of the following natural products have antiplatelet effects?
I. Ginkgo biloba
II. Ginger
III. Ginseng
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
III only
D.
I and II
E.
I, II, and III


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